Saturday, August 3, 2013

Random Thoughts

  1. Fiscal conservatism is bad economics. Functioning economies are built on credit, or if you prefer, the promise of repaying a debt. If we could only spend what we had to spend, the economy would implode. Rather, one should only take out credit if he's capable of repaying.
  2. The below comic details a failed use of a valid logical inference called "denying the consequent". 

Let's suppose that Illinois does have a high gun violence rate and that criminals do illegally import guns from states with lax gun control laws. The argument above wouldn't even be valid. The gun violence rate for Illinois isn't dependent on the gun violence rate of other states. It's dependent on internal factors. The Sinaloa region in Mexico has a higher average gun violence rate than Illinois. The majority of guns used to commit violent crime in Mexico are legally imported from the United States. That doesn't mean the violence in Mexico does not happen because the gun violence rate in Illinois is lower compared to Sinaloa. It's a stupid pro-firearm argument, and it's a complete non-sequitur.

Sunday, November 18, 2012

The Psychology of Political Movements

I know that it's not a complete or even professional diagnosis, but today I will be taking a speculative look at the dominant psychology behind political movements in general. For reference, we will examine the /r/Anarchism sub-reddit on reddit as a prime example. This diagnosis may be extended to apply to the wider anarchist movement as well, keeping in mind the effects of the structural restraints that reddit's moderation and voting system has on determining which view-points get promoted and those which do not. That's to say,  in short, that uninformed users may leave with false impressions about anarchist goals. If you have been around /r/Anarchism for a while, you start to notice that several  commentators adopt a holier-than-thou attitude when speaking to other users. In /r/anarchism's case, it takes the form of the phrase "You are not an anarchist" or some variant thereof.

This condemnation is of course an example of the No True Scotsman fallacy. Even though it's erroneous, such a line of reasoning serves a useful purpose in the formation and preservation of any political movement. This is for the simple reason that it helps to preserve a uniform sense of identity that transcends the individual. It appears to be invoked whenever someone feels that his/her core identity is under attack and needs to respond defensively. Even so, it's an understandable if divisive phenomenon. Similar philosophies such as Marxist-Leninism (similar in the sense that both anarchism and Marxist-Leninism are socialist) seem to enjoy a more widespread presence in the political arena than does anarchism, and this is probably largely due to the fact that Marxist-Leninism itself has enjoyed an active existence in statecraft in the form of Soviet "communism", a bastardized form of socialism which collapsed back into state-capitalism.

The anarchist internalizes the difference in scale between the followings of anarchism and Marxist communism, and leaves with the need to self-preserve, to protect his/her identity against intrusive Marxist communists, "anarcho"-capitalists and other right-"libertarians", and the general population who harbor false ideas about what anarchism and socialism are about. To the anarchist, it's as if there's almost no space to diffuse anarchist ideas, since the existing political space is largely filled by hostile Trostykists, Leninists, "anarcho"-capitalists who co-opted the 'anarchist' label for their own purposes, naive Conservatives and Liberals who rationalize the existence of the State and capitalism.

Then there are the other "libertarians"--the Ron Paul and Gary Johnson types--who have the pretense of being "anti-establishment" and "forward-thinking", who--according to themselves--exist outside the left-right dichotomy of the political spectrum, but merely end up being the default third-positionists who feel swayed by right-libertarianism because of its favorable attitude toward pot legislation. On top of that, right-libertarians naturally have an ahistorical conception of the nature and origin of capitalism and its mechanisms, and hence cannot understand the implications of the positions they hold on issues relating to it.

But the point here is that every political movement engages in this process of self-preservation. Every given political movement denounces a competing philosophy/movement/ideology as illogical and as an epiphenomenon of itself. Modern liberalism reacts to trends within Western conservatism, anarchism reacts to Marxism and vice-versa, and this continues until each movement reaches a comfortable equilibrium where a given movement can define itself in relation to another concept --such as capitalism, freedom, property rights, the state--without sacrificing the values that comprise its core identity. The perceived needs of each movement are in fact concrete as they relate to abstract concepts which themselves, in turn, concern concrete concepts such as the fulfillment of individual need--in fact, I would argue that this is what all competing philosophies boil down to.

Political movements will continue to emerge, self-evaluate, develop and shift along the political spectrum in tandem with developments in the concrete, material conditions of the real world. Anarchism could not logically exist as a concept and praxis without defining itself in relation to capitalism and the state. Keynesian policies would not have gained as much traction if the devastations of the Great Depression and World War II had never occurred. This is self-evident, but it's a process worth bearing in mind. The question to each is-- will my philosophy survive long enough to serve its purpose?

Sunday, August 26, 2012

Consensualism vs. Voluntarism

Introduction and Recap

You might remember my entry on Voluntarism. If you haven't read it, it's basically the 'philosophy' co-opted by 'anarcho'-capitalists to justify wage-slavery. I outlined central issues and condemned it as an ideology which failed to adapt to the realities of capitalism as it expanded to dominate the globe. The reasons for this failure I can't really speculate much on. I suspect it didn't gain much traction when first introduced because its central tenet is a fundamental truism. Physical aggression is generally undesirable.

Wow, so insightful. That really needed to be incorporated into a philosophy. Not just that -- prioritize the truism to the point where it severely limits serious ethical practice. I can't see voluntarists/'anarcho'-capitalists successfully setting up their notion of an ideal society without violating the non-aggression principle. I think it would go something like this:
Voluntarist #1: (on an island) Alright! We've finally escaped from the treacherous claws of the State. We founded this island paradise for ourselves. So how are we going to divide this up? 
Voluntarist #2: Hmm... Okay. You see that tree over there? (points to the only coconut tree). That's mine. And to prove it... (he draws a gun and aims it at Voluntarist #1). 
Voluntarist #1: (In shock) But that's... that's the only tree on this island. Are the coconuts yours too?
Voluntarist #2: Damn right. 
Voluntarist #1: But what if I want one?
Voluntarist #2: That's easy! According to our God, the Free Market, the price always matches supply versus demand. Since I'm in control of the only coconut supply, and it's in great demand, I'll charge you $89.95 for one coconut. 
Voluntarist #1: I can't afford that!
Voluntarist #2: Okay. How about you work for me? I'll pay you $5.00 an hour. (Cocks the gun). 
Voluntarist #1: ...It'll take me eighteen hours of work to buy one coconut. I need to eat in between then, you know.
Voluntarist #2: That's fine! Just ask for charity. 
Voluntarist #1: ...will you give me charity?
Voluntarist #2: No. And you can't force me to be charitable, because that would be immoral and involuntary. (Presses the gun against the other guy's temple). Or you could starve to death. Your choice! 
Voluntarist #1: ...Fine. I'll work for you. 
Voluntarist #2: Great! And by the way, the coconuts you crack open belong to me too. I'm glad we could come to an understanding. (Presses the gun even harder).
Voluntarist #1: But --
Voluntarist #2: Remember, it's voluntary, because you agreed to work for me. I claimed this tree first. Resources are scarce. There's no way we could possibly accord ownership fairly. I'm just taking advantage of the scarcity. It's not my fault. (Readies the trigger).
Voluntarist #1: ...Kill me now. 
Humor aside, I've mentioned how voluntarism is outdated. It's time for a new philosophy to take its place. I've dubbed it "Consensualism". It differs from Voluntarism in three important ways:

1. It clearly distinguishes between 'voluntary' and 'consensual' relationships.
2. It doesn't declare consensual relationships to be ethical, unlike Voluntarism.
3. It accounts for coercion occurring through both non-violent and non-malicious means.

'Consensual' vs. 'Voluntary'

"Anarcho"-capitalists conflate the bare-bones definition of 'voluntary' with the loaded term of 'consent'. The 'bare-bones' designation specifies any action you consciously undertake. Typing a reply is voluntary. Choosing what shirt to wear is voluntary. Hence, so is employment. It shouldn't be used as an ethical metric, since its rhetorical flatness impedes genuine ethical inquiry. The term we really want to look at is consent.

'Consent' means agreement to participate in a relationship of some sort. You can choose whether or not to join (thereby entering and exiting or remaining outside). That implies freedom of choice. If you cannot freely enter or leave the relationship, you can't freely participate, and so the relation cannot be consensual. To interchange it with voluntary just trivializes the meaning, as by definition all conscious undertakings are, well ... voluntary.

A relationship/transaction is deemed consensual in nature if participation is non-essential. Employer-worker contracts are non-consensual since participation in the work-force is essential to continue living past a certain point in life (e.g. adulthood). You can't choose not to work, rendering freedom to participate, and thus consent, non-existent. It's voluntary on a semantic level, but that isn't helpful to our understanding of the case. All consensual relationships are voluntary. Not all 'voluntary' relationships are consensual.

It's important to note that wage-labor alternatives like social assistance remain first world luxuries. If the opportunity isn't equal, then it cannot be an equally viable option. The general compulsion of the system remains unchallenged. 

Consent != Ethical

Consent alone can't tell us if a relationship is legitimate. Let's say you have a spouse. It turns out he/she's been cheating on you with your next door neighbor. He/she consented to have sex (i.e. he/she freely participated) with him. But he/she's been unfaithful to you. Now it's harder to declare the relation 'legitimate' because we've sewn an extra ethical layer on. But it was absent of coercion. The relationship was not legitimate, even though it was consensual. In summary, consensualism is broader than voluntarism, but remains constrained in application. Care must be taken not to use this metric inappropriately. 

Coercion Isn't Only Violence

I define 'coercion' as the deliberate placement of someone into a compromised position to another party's benefit at the targeted party's material or emotional expense. I define 'compromise' as the otherwise unnecessary expense incurred by the targeted party. It's not required that both parties incur net expenses, since this doesn't reflect the material reality of capitalism. In negotiation between people, expenses are referred to as concessions and thus possess a strictly material value. The term compromised, in this context qualifies the concession in question as inevitable, and of significant value to both parties. If what's conceded is of no material impact, then the position cannot be truly compromised. I have two things to note about the first definition: Nature of intent and means. 

Nature of Intent

Just because an action is deliberate doesn't mean it was malicious. This allows for people with good intentions (like you and me) to unwittingly place others into harmful positions under the mistaken belief that the transaction is beneficial. This is the context in which I place wage-labor. It might seem strange, because people think of coercion occurring under malicious pretenses. When it comes to impersonal systems, we examine the system's structure itself, and not individual intentions, which drive the coercive nature of wage-labor. (Capitalism is an impersonal economic system). It's a fact that the laborer has to compromise, even if the relation is masked to seem beneficial. This is because the material reality between the two parties is significantly different: one controls the means of production, and the other does not. 

Means

The 'means' denotes the deliberately constructed methods (e.g. privatized means of production) or natural circumstances (e.g. scarcity of resources) that determine how the compromised position arose. Coercion can manifest through non-violent means. Blackmail would be an example of non-violent coercion. The perpetrator threatens to release embarrassing photos or correspondence to force the victim into a compromised position to the other party's benefit. He may promise not to release the photos in exchange for the victim's money. The means may be completely non-malicious and non-violent, but still coercive. Agreeing to wage-labor is a means to participate in capitalism, but remains coercive because the worker is deliberately placed into a compromised position for the capitalist's material benefit. 


In Conclusion...

In summary, Consensualism is a patched, updated version of Voluntarism. It doesn't tailor facts (e.g. people have to consign to wage-labor to earn a living ...because of the manufactured dependence on capitalism) to conform to capitalist assumptions about human behavior (i.e. they want to work because people are inherently selfish ...because no other option exists). Historically, Voluntarism existed before capitalism's rise, but 'anarcho'-capitalists have co-opted it, since it so nicely compliments their skewed world-view. The strike-through denotes the capitalist assumptions, bold commentary is the reality. You can see that the capitalist world view is neatly contradicted by the latter! 








Against Biblical Literalism and Symbolism

There seem to be two prevailing currents of thought when it comes to interpreting the Bible. One is Biblical literalism, or reading into the Bible as a historically accurate account of past events. The second is Biblical symbolism, or reading into the Bible as a protracted metaphor, acting as a meta-narrative of sorts. Both interpretations have some key weaknesses which limit the scope of their application.

Why Biblical Literalism Fails

The first interpretation fails for a few obvious reasons. The scientific method directly contradicts the claims put forth by the Bible. The Universe wasn't created in seven days. Humans aren't born as adults. Snakes have never been known to talk. No known Garden of Eden has ever been confirmed to exist, and so forth. Literalism is best understood in a historical realist context where certain Biblical claims are seen not as truthful, but as the result of mysticism, scientific knowledge gaps and vastly inadequate means to examine the superficial appearances of reality to bridge these gaps.

Indeed, as the philosophy of rationalism and the scientific revolution flourished in tandem in the 17th and 18th centuries, religious superstition lost influence in favor of verifiable naturalistic explanations which afforded the institution of science a newfound respect the world over. Though it should be noted that this conclusion is Eurocentric, since the Arabs had also progressed in mathematics and science under the spread of Islam centuries earlier, to name one example. Even if some Biblical claims have a grain of historical accuracy, it doesn't justify Biblical literalism.

The Bible is meant to present historical Jesus in a glorified manner. There's proof that a Jesus similar to the one described in the New Testament existed, but it's not proof of his Divinity. Facts about him will be exaggerated, understated, omitted or fabricated to tweak his appearance to conform to the greater narrative (the theological promotion of Jesus).The Jesus narrative shifts between several New Testament gospels and contradict one another at several points. If the Bible is to be taken literally, how do we resolve the factual errors, omissions and contradictions?

We must be mindful of the historical period in which the events were witnessed and written, the numerous translations, intermittent political revisions (see the First Council of Nicaea), and the faulty recollections and cognitive biases of the original authors, to name a few roadblocks we must surmount to understanding how the Bible is currently presented and structured. In short, Biblical literalism fails as an interpretive method because it ignores political motivations in Biblical presentation, human error and the mountain of evidence which contradicts the Bible's supernatural claims about the Universe and origin of life.

Why Biblical Symbolism Fails

This method fails because its too prone to being contorted to fit with desired interpretations. Though some books of the Bible aren't intended to be taken literally, such as Psalms (collection of poetry) or Proverbs (collection of wise proverbs). Poetry uses literary techniques which demand expanded situational awareness from the reader. Themes aren't presented straightforwardly as in plain prose literature. The text is deliberately obfuscatory and playful, rendering any straight interpretations useless.  It becomes problematic when you attempt to interpret scenarios recounted as factual or historically accurate. How do you reconcile prophetic visions? The visions experienced may contain metaphors, but the experience itself is presented as fact, and as far as the text informs us, it's factual. It seems then, that some parts were written to be taken literally. 

Let's suppose the entire Bible is metaphorical. What could it represent? Whatever the interpreter would desire it to. The book of Revelations is convenient for Biblical conspiracy theorists who take literalism with a dash of metaphor because they can't verify the dubious claims they put forth otherwise. The red dragon falling from the stars? That's the United States impending economic collapse! Trumpets sounding throughout the sky? It's the cause of those mysterious sonic booms we've been hearing earlier this year, of course. In short, Biblical symbolism fails as an interpretive method because it ignores evidence of historical Jesus, and reinterprets accounts obviously meant to be taken as factual. 










Friday, August 10, 2012

Discourse With A Skeptic

This time, I engage a well-read skeptic on the subject of crop circles and ET.  I am '1'. He is '2'. This post will be updated as the person replies. Enjoy. 

1: Hi!

I just wanted to say that I saw your thread, and I really appreciated how you persuaded others to think past ET explanations for complex structures. I didn't know residual radiation in crop could have had terrestrial sources, though it makes you question why an advanced space-faring species would use vehicles that emitted radiation if their observed effects were known to be harmful.

Anyhow, I wanted to message you directly because the thread is kinda old for any response by this point (unless you check it regularly, I suppose). My question to you is regards the Julia set crop formation. You may have heard of it. Is it possible for such a formation to have been produced within the 45 minute time frame by human agency? It was not reported to have been in the field at 5:30pm that morning, and was first reported at 6:15. I cannot find a source for this, but a guard from across Stonehenge glanced toward the field twice in a fifteen minute time frame, and when he glanced the second time, he saw the formation. There are two potential time-frames to work with.

What are your thoughts on the matter?


2: Hey there! First, that was a really nice message. Thank you! I appreciate it, and I wanted to dignify it with some time, so I jumped into this. The Julia Set crop circle isn't one I'm familiar with. I mean, I've seen it before, definitely, but I didn't know the story behind it. So I'm as fresh as can be on this one. I read the entire page you linked me to, all three articles. It's an interesting story! And a f'ing amazing crop circle. Good hell.

Assuming the pilot isn't mistaken, or fabricating for fun, the 45 minute time window is pretty insane. There's also a little part of me that's saying "You know, that time window hinges entirely on that one pilot's account. Is that enough to say it was definitely created in under 45 minutes? Am I being too unreasonable in even thinking about this?"

There were some parts that were pretty far out, like the eyewitness accounts of thick, magical mist creating the design. It seems like the only eyewitness to mention it was Lucy. But the mist, the time window, this is all secondary to how cool that thing is. That is some crazy engineering to get that down, no matter who (or what!) did it.

So then I did some Googling. Nothing biased in the search terms, just "julia set crop circle." The second over-all result was this interview with Rod Dickinson. He's the guy who's mentioned in the third article of the link you gave me. The article's author respectfully brings in alternate evidence that suggests it could be man-made. He mentions a guy named Rod Dickinson, who claims to know that it was. Could the interview be made up? Sure, but so could some of the Julia Set details, too, since both the accounts and the interview have about the same amount of authenticity to their evidence.

Now, this is all under the assumption that there's an agreement between us that the Julia Set crop circle could be designed and made by humans. If you're of the belief, instead, that it's too elegant and massive to have been made by humans, then it's a much different (but equally open and hopefully enjoyable!) conversation.

So anyway, that's sort of how it runs through in my head. The crop circle is real. We definitely know that! But the rest is truly he-said/she-said, and he-said/she-said isn't enough to demonstrate that the Julia Set crop circle is of non-human origin.

(If you ask me.)

What are your thoughts?

1: Excuse my late reply! I spent three hours or so writing this. (I'm a long thinker and even slower writer.)

Thanks for responding! I admit that I'm somewhat biased toward extra-terrestrial explanations of events, provided that a sufficient amount of alternate explanations have been discounted (and I arbitrate what those terms are). I quickly linked to that article through the same search term, but I gleaned most of the background details from Whitley Strieber's book, The Communion Enigma. I can't speak for what experiences he's had that persuaded him to accept (limited) evidence as a credible standard of evidence.

For instance, in his book he writes:
Much research, most of it on the part of Dr. Levengood, has shown that the stem nodes are heated to make them bend, and this is perfectly obvious even on casual observation. The nodes are darker and bent in flattened crop, but not in standing crop immediately beside it. But when I tried to bend standing crop, the stems broke off. Pushing at them with a board simply made more break than if I had done it by hand. (Page 109)
Yet it seems the qualities observed could be sufficiently explained by the rope-and-board hypothesis, where the nodes are blown out in felled plant stalk by downward pressure (correct me if I'm wrong; fallible memory). Residual radiation reported in recent accounts can be accounted for by the possible use of magnetrons in their production. It seems to be a novel method and, as technology progresses along new lines, the techniques for creating crop formations increase in sophistication as well. But Strieber seems to assume that humans cannot explode nodes, as they appear to be heat-induced. Indeed, he writes:
Perhaps Doug and Dave used curling irons or hair dyers. (Page 111). 
That's just a short note on how my exposure to new evidence has allowed me to reconsider the validity of previously posited explanations behind crop formations.

In short, I'm open to the possibility (perhaps even probability) that the Julia set crop circle was created by humans, considering the above. So there's an agreement between us there, at least.
What are your thoughts?
My perspective on this matter broadly concerns itself with standards of evidence which are in continuous conflict with what constitutes evidence and knowledge. It's more philosophical than factually based, I suppose. I should disclose that I'm not entirely convinced by certain skeptical arguments for the sake of being skeptical. Insufficient evidence exists to unquestionably confirm the ET hypothesis, on principle. Yet, naturalistic or mundane postulations cannot entirely account for strong anomalies in tabulated data either. We posit the best explanations to fit the known evidence. It follows that most phenomena can be explained by naturalistic accounts. Stanton T. Friedman wrote in his book, Top Secret/Majic that:
Project Blue Book Special Report 14 demonstrates that 21.5 percent of the 3201 [UFO] sightings investigated could not be identified, completely separate from the 9.5 percent which were labeled insufficient information. The probability that the Unknowns were just missed Knowns was shown to be less than one percent. It was found that the better the quality of the sighting, the more likely it was to be an Unknown. It is clear that the combination of appearance and incredible flight behavior rule out an earth origin for pre-1955 Unknown sightings.
'Unknowns' doesn't mean that the phenomena observed were intelligently controlled craft, of course. But given that the probability of those being missed Knowns was small, it seems unlikely that some other as of-yet undiscovered terrestrial phenomena could account for these sightings. Based on the anomalies tabulated, we can't conclude definitively that ET exist, but that the best remaining hypothesis which account for these Unknowns are intelligently controlled craft/ET. Until a likely naturalistic alternative is posited, it seems that ET is the best hypothesis for these Unknown observations. That is the attitude that reputable ET researchers have concerning standards of evidence (not to say I am one).

Now, in terms of this Julia set case ... to broaden the horizon, if you like.

I think this case illustrates that over-reliance on witness accounts is not a substitute for genuine inquiry. Humans, in terms of recollections of past events at least, are very susceptible to cognitive biases which color the reproduction of accounts, and can lead to conflicting witness statements. Though I think I understand the frustration between the skeptics and believers. It boils down to an acceptable standard of evidence, and the will to research outcomes which conflict with your reigning outlook when scheming a fruitful discourse.

There are stumbling blocks on this path which need to be addressed. If you're exposed to information about a particular event, you're more likely to draw upon that information if it seemed sufficient on its own at the time, which is reliant on several factors (I believe that's an example of confirmation bias). The argument is logically valid, but factually incorrect. This works best with uninformed people. I use the following cases as illustrative analogies of the present situation, they are not literally how

It seems people posit certain 'working' assumptions (read: they appear to work) when uninformed about certain observed events. This is drawn through inductive logic. "All of the swans that all living beings have ever seen are white. Therefore, all swans are white." This is valid on a logical level, but it falls apart when we see a black swan. We then amend the first statement to read: "Not all swans are white." It's an a posteriori statement which is informally true.

The assumptions posited appear to be reliant on the observed evidence. It's thus possible for us to posit more realistic assumptions about reality as we're exposed to new verifiable information. In fact, this process is central to scientific research. There are several ways to obtain information apart from personal observation which remain within the realm of naturalist empiricism. I can't directly compare assumptions drawn from personal observation and the systemic assumptions which ground empirical science, of course. But discourse fundamentally occurs on an individual level.

This assumption-positing becomes problematic on an individual level, because a skilled propagandist can exclude conflicting information to produce a sanitized argument which appears logical (through inductive logic) when examined on the surface. Yet, it dissipates when someone with particular knowledge (experience in a discipline or even basic research) scrutinizes it. However, particular knowledge is by definition uncommon, so inductive logic cannot be held as a standard when examining evidence.

This issue could be rooted in how we interpret declarative statements. If I point to a photo of President Kennedy, alive and well in the photo, and I say "This is a photo of a dead person", would that be a true statement? Informally, it is true, because people are generally aware of Kennedy's death. Death is retroactively applied (it must be; we are drawing upon the past [this person has died] to speak about the present [the is a photo of...] The active subject is also changed; instead of talking about the person, we are discussing what the photo itself represents, as per the sentence syntax. But people usually parse the syntax to mean the person subject itself is what's being referred to.

Nonetheless, the statement makes the silent implication that the observer retains factual knowledge of Kennedy's death, and can thus deductively draw that conclusion. But on a logical level, excluding these underlying cognitive assumptions, the statement asserts unqualified information (it is insufficient to conclude either outcome). Without particular assumptions of certain knowledge to qualify propositions, we cannot judge the truth-value of particular statements.

How does this tie in with standards of evidence when scrutinizing claims? Declarative statements make particular assumptions about factual knowledge, as we have seen. It follows that naturalistic explanations, as a set of hypotheses containing qualitatively true (by virtue of experiment) observations expressed as statements, make particular, possibly incorrect assumptions regards factual knowledge.

This raises the issue of what constitutes declarative knowledge and how it develops over time. Is it a social phenomenon? In my view, I'm inclined to think it is, as I have demonstrated how one can be left stranded when not privy to it. If it's a social phenomenon, it must be because declarative knowledge transfers between people, and can be independently verified on a mutual standard of evidence.

In the confirmation bias scenario, factual knowledge exists but is excluded from logical argument. It can be satisfactorily concluded by the observer, thanks to the exclusion of these facts, that the argument is valid. But it is not necessarily true. Even if the facts were presented accordingly, it remains a logically valid argument. Yet it can be overturned in the face of compelling evidence when it comes to what is likely to be true. If compelling evidence can demonstrate a greater likelihood of ET intelligence existing than not, then it seems skeptical arguments which rely on naturalistic explanations which, either by design, ignorance, or on purpose, fail to account for/ignore these same anomalies that would decimate those arguments.

In short, agreeing upon a standard of evidence is tough, not least because of how, in the absence of physical evidence of these phenomena (e.g. space vehicles), skeptics resort to naturalistic explanations which cannot account for true anomalies. This seems to be done in part because naturalism has large weight afforded to it already, and because UFO researchers have an increased burden to determine for the benefit of both parties what is acceptable and relevant evidence to pass scrutiny. As Friedman contends:
Friedman argues that reproducibility is largely irrelevant to the study of UFOs, essentially because by definition, scientists do not control variables if UFO phenomena involve intelligent extraterrestrial control; that is, in this case, the study of UFOs does not involve experiment and experimental methods. This position can be criticized on the basis that experiments can be conducted on materials or technology that are hypothesized to have an extraterrestrial origin. Although Friedman maintains that such materials have on at least one occasion been obtained, as stated above, he maintains these are highly classified and not available for conventional or mainstream scientific study.
He further notes that it would be irrational to dismiss credible witnesses as poor observers merely because they cannot identity given phenomena as conventional, or as good observers because they can. Who arbitrates this judgment, and why should it be used as a metric when falsifying evidence? Doesn't this indicate a bias toward naturalistic explanations for events which may not sufficiently account for them? This is a point to consider when deciding what explanation fits the bill best. I'm going to stop there because I realize I went off on a loooong tangent and I apologize for that.

Those are my thoughts in the matter, explicated in full.

1: I read over my previous responses and wanted to clarify some potentially confusing points.

"Inductive reasoning".

I assume that those with no specific knowledge of a subject will be receptive to naturalistic arguments, which rely on reproducible experiments and physical evidence. If these are not qualities which can be reproduced in a laboratory environment, it must be a regular enough pattern to be tabulated and construct general principles extracted from observing consistent behavior. This is a standard of evidence that is heavily supported, with falsifiable hypotheses and whatnot. Uninformed observers use inductive logic to reach conclusions in the absence of greater evidence. In general, all scientists do.

They construct general principles from tabulated observations. I just wanted to point out that inductive reasoning is biased toward natural indicators. If there exist anomalous observations which cannot be sufficiently accounted for by existing naturalistic explanations, then a dishonest skeptic will rely on the weakness of inductive reasoning to draw otherwise uninformed persons into his net of deception. I pointed out that the ET hypothesis cannot be entirely falsified because no physical evidence exists (at least publicly), but there exists enough evidence in the form of credible witnesses and high-quality sightings to not dismiss it entirely out of hand.

"The argument is logically valid, but factually incorrect. This works best with uninformed people."

I meant this as in the argument against a particular case that an uninformed person first reads, e.g. anthropogenic global warming, is logically valid but factually incorrect. The combination of these factors sows the impression that the argument holds any currency in truth, when it does not. This is again, another example of how inductive reasoning can be exploited by dishonest skeptics who purposely exclude observations which cannot be sufficiently explained by the theories posited.

"I use the following cases as illustrative analogies of the present situation, they are not literally how"

This sentence was cut off. I use the examples of confirmation bias and the ambiguity of declarative statements which constitute broader theories to illustrate what I perceive to be the epistemic problems present in the scientific method and with people who exploit these weaknesses to stamp out legitimate inquiry into unconventional, but credible phenomena (Yet again, UFOs. It's a real pattern, but what are they? Insufficient evidence to definitely conclude the nature of these, but the best explanation appears to be ET hypothesis, given that the anomalies of the characteristics observed cannot be sufficiently explained by the posited theories).

"If compelling evidence can demonstrate a greater likelihood of ET intelligence existing than not, then it seems skeptical arguments which rely on naturalistic explanations which, either by design, ignorance, or on purpose, fail to account for/ignore these same anomalies that would decimate those arguments."

This sentence loops on itself. I meant to say:

"If compelling evidence can demonstrate a greater likelihood of ET intelligence existing rather than not, it seems that conventional explanations for these observations, which fail to sufficiently account for these anomalies, would be discarded or fine-tuned to fit the new evidence."

I continued discussion in a similar topic started by this person on a later date. The conversation can be found here. I enjoyed chatting with this guy. I think it made me more skeptical since I was exposed to his measured, but open-minded skepticism.